Free EA Exam Practice Questions — All 3 Parts

Test your knowledge with real enrolled agent free MCQs. Covers Individual Taxation (Part 1), Business Taxation (Part 2), and Representation (Part 3).

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1

EA Exam Part 1: Individuals

Free enrolled agent part 1 practice questions

Question 1 Easy

Which IRS publication is the primary reference for U.S. tax rules applicable to aliens (both resident and nonresident)?

1 IRS Publication 519 ✓ Correct
IRS Publication 519 (U.S. Tax Guide for Aliens) is the primary reference for both resident and nonresident alien tax rules, including the SPT, green card test, dual-status rules, and treaty exemptions. Pub 17 is for domestic taxpayers generally. Pub 54 is for U.S. citizens living abroad. Pub 501 covers filing status and dependents — none of these address alien-specific rules the way Pub 519 does.
2 IRS Publication 17
3 IRS Publication 54
4 IRS Publication 501
Question 2 Easy

Kevin is unmarried, and his 10-year-old daughter lives with him all year. He pays all costs of maintaining the home. His daughter's mother (Kevin's ex-girlfriend) does not live in the home. What is Kevin's most favorable filing status?

1 Single
2 Head of Household ✓ Correct
Kevin qualifies for Head of Household: (1) unmarried, (2) paid more than half the home costs, (3) his qualifying child (daughter, age 10) lived with him all year. HOH provides a higher standard deduction ($21,900 for 2024) and wider brackets than Single ($14,600). QSS requires a deceased spouse (none here). MFJ requires being married (Kevin is not). HOH is always more favorable than Single when a qualifying child is present.
3 Qualifying Surviving Spouse
4 Married Filing Jointly
Question 3 Easy

Which filing status provides the most favorable tax treatment, assuming the taxpayer qualifies?

1 Head of Household
2 Qualifying Surviving Spouse
3 Married Filing Jointly ✓ Correct
Married Filing Jointly provides the most favorable tax treatment overall — the widest tax brackets, largest standard deduction ($29,200 for 2024), and eligibility for the most credits. The ranking from most to least favorable is: MFJ = QSS > HOH > Single > MFS. QSS uses the same rates as MFJ but is technically a step below. HOH is better than Single. MFS is the least favorable status with the narrowest brackets and fewest credits.
4 Single
Question 4 Easy

Svetlana is a citizen of Russia who has been granted lawful permanent resident status in the U.S. (green card). How is she taxed for U.S. federal income tax purposes?

1 She is taxed on worldwide income, just like a U.S. citizen. ✓ Correct
Under IRC §7701(b)(1)(A), lawful permanent residents (green card holders) are resident aliens taxed on worldwide income — the same as U.S. citizens. The green card test applies regardless of where the taxpayer physically lives. Physical presence outside the U.S. does not change resident alien status. Taxation only on U.S.-source income or ECI is the nonresident alien rule. No 5-year exemption exists.
2 She is taxed only on U.S. source income.
3 She is taxed only on income effectively connected with a U.S. trade or business.
4 She is exempt from U.S. tax for her first 5 years as a green card holder.
Explanation: Income or losses from a limited partnership are passive by definition, as limited partners generally cannot materially participate in the management of the business.
Question 5 Easy

The failure-to-pay penalty for a taxpayer who owes $3,000 is what per month?

1 5% of the balance due per month, up to 25%.
2 0.5% of the balance due per month, up to 25%. ✓ Correct
The failure-to-pay penalty (IRC §6651(a)(2)) is 0.5% per month on the unpaid balance, up to 25% maximum. The 5%/month rate is the failure-to-FILE penalty (a different penalty). The 1%/month rate applies only after IRS issues a final notice of intent to levy. The 2%/month rate does not exist in the IRC.
3 1% of the balance due per month, up to 10%.
4 2% of the balance due per month, up to 20%.
Explanation: A Roth IRA allows tax-free qualified distributions because contributions are made with after-tax dollars. Traditional IRAs, 401(k)s, and SEP-IRAs are funded with pre-tax dollars (or pre-tax deferrals), so distributions are taxable.
Question 6 Easy

Wei is a nonresident alien. Which form does he file for his 2024 U.S. federal income tax return?

1 Form 1040
2 Form 1040-NR ✓ Correct
Form 1040-NR (U.S. Nonresident Alien Income Tax Return) is the required form for nonresident aliens with U.S.-source income. Form 1040 is for citizens and resident aliens only. Form 1040-SR is the age-65+ version of Form 1040, also for citizens/resident aliens only. Form W-7 is an ITIN application — not a tax return.
3 Form 1040-SR
4 Form W-7
Explanation: Under IRC Section 469(c)(7), a qualified real estate professional who materially participates can treat rental income and losses as non-passive (active), allowing rental losses to offset other active income without the $25,000 cap.
Question 7 Easy

What is the primary difference between Form 1040 and Form 1040-SR?

1 Form 1040-SR is only for taxpayers with Social Security income.
2 Form 1040-SR is for married seniors only.
3 Form 1040-SR is simpler and eliminates the need to report investment income.
4 Form 1040-SR is designed for taxpayers age 65 or older, with a larger font and a chart for the standard deduction, but reports the same information as Form 1040. ✓ Correct
Form 1040-SR and Form 1040 report identical information — the same income, deductions, credits, and taxes. The ONLY differences are cosmetic: Form 1040-SR uses a larger font for easier reading and includes a standard deduction chart showing the additional amount for age/blindness. It is available to ANY taxpayer age 65 or older (Single, MFJ, MFS, HOH) regardless of income type. It is not limited to Social Security recipients, married seniors, or those with simple returns.
Question 8 Easy

A married couple, both under age 65, files jointly in 2024. What is the gross income threshold below which they are NOT required to file?

1 $21,900
2 $27,700
3 $29,200 ✓ Correct
For 2024, the MFJ standard deduction is $29,200 for couples where both spouses are under 65. This is also the gross income filing threshold for MFJ couples under 65. $21,900 is fabricated. $27,700 was the 2023 figure (outdated). $32,300 would apply only if both spouses were 65 or older ($29,200 + $1,550 × 2).
4 $32,300
Explanation: Passive activity losses (from rental real estate and passive business interests) can only offset passive income. They cannot be deducted against active income (wages, business income) or portfolio income (dividends, interest) — except for the special $25,000 rental allowance.
Question 9 Easy

Marcus, age 68, receives Social Security income, pension distributions, and interest income. He wants to know if he can use Form 1040-SR instead of Form 1040. Which statement is correct?

1 He cannot use Form 1040-SR because he has multiple income sources.
2 He can only use Form 1040-SR if his income is below the standard deduction.
3 He can use Form 1040-SR because he is age 65 or older. ✓ Correct
Form 1040-SR is available to any taxpayer age 65 or older by year-end, regardless of income type or amount (IRC §6012). Marcus at 68 qualifies. There is no income limit, no restriction on multiple income sources, and no requirement to use Form 1040 because of pension income. The form is simply a larger-print version of Form 1040 designed for seniors.
4 He must use Form 1040 because he has pension income.
Explanation: SECURE 2.0 Act changed the RMD starting age to 73 for taxpayers who turned 72 after December 31, 2022. Those who turned 72 before 2023 follow the prior rule.
Question 10 Easy

Which of the following individuals can NEVER be claimed as a dependent?

1 A foster child who lived with the taxpayer all year.
2 A housekeeper who lives with the taxpayer and earns $4,000. ✓ Correct
A housekeeper (household employee) is in neither the qualifying child nor qualifying relative categories. The qualifying relative "member of household" test requires that the person live with the taxpayer as a member of the household — not as an employee. An employment relationship (with wages) fundamentally differs from a dependent relationship. A foster child, grandchild, and non-resident parent can all potentially be claimed as dependents under the correct tests.
3 A grandchild who is 16 and lived with the taxpayer.
4 A parent who does not live with the taxpayer.
2

EA Exam Part 2: Businesses

Free enrolled agent part 2 practice questions

Question 1 Easy

Silver Creek Farm is operated as a sole proprietorship. The owner files Schedule C. Which additional schedule must be used to report the self-employment tax owed?

1 Schedule A
2 Schedule D
3 Schedule E
4 Schedule SE ✓ Correct
Self-employment tax is calculated and reported on Schedule SE of Form 1040. Schedule D is for capital gains and losses. Schedule E is for supplemental income (rentals, pass-throughs). Schedule A is for itemized deductions.
Question 2 Easy

Derek starts a photography business and wonders whether the IRS will classify it as a hobby or a true business. His photography activity generated profits in 4 of the last 5 years, including the current year. Which of the following is CORRECT?

1 The activity is classified as a hobby unless revenue exceeds $10,000
2 The activity is presumed to be a business because it was profitable in at least 3 of the last 5 years ✓ Correct
Under IRC §183, an activity is presumed to be a business (not a hobby) if it shows a profit in at least 3 of the last 5 years, including the current year. Derek qualifies because he profited in 4 of 5 years. Choice A is wrong — the nature of the activity (art, photography) doesn't make it a hobby. Choices C and D invent rules not found in the tax code.
3 The activity is presumed to be a business only if Derek has no other income
4 The activity is presumed to be a hobby because it involves art
Question 3 Easy

Sophia forms Bloom Florist as a sole proprietorship with three employees. She pays wages and federal unemployment taxes. Does Bloom Florist need an Employer Identification Number (EIN)?

1 No, because EINs are only for corporations
2 No, because sole proprietorships never need EINs
3 Only if her annual revenue exceeds $25,000
4 Yes, because she has employees and pays employment taxes ✓ Correct
A sole proprietorship must obtain an EIN if it has employees or pays certain excise taxes. Since Sophia has employees and pays FUTA, an EIN is required. Choice A is wrong — sole proprietors CAN need EINs. Choice B is wrong — EINs are not limited to corporations. Choice D is wrong — there is no revenue threshold that triggers the EIN requirement.
Question 4 Easy

Victor forms Vector LLC with two other members and does not file any entity classification election. How is Vector LLC taxed by default?

1 As a C corporation
2 As a partnership ✓ Correct
A multi-member LLC defaults to partnership tax treatment under the check-the-box regulations. Choice A and D require affirmative elections. Choice B applies only to a single-member LLC.
3 As a sole proprietorship
4 As an S corporation
Question 5 Easy

Maria operates a small bakery as the sole owner without incorporating. She has not filed any paperwork with the secretary of state. For federal income tax purposes, how does Maria report her bakery's income and expenses?

1 On Form 1065 as a partnership
2 On Form 1120-S as an S corporation
3 On Schedule C of Form 1040 ✓ Correct
A sole proprietorship reports business income and expenses on Schedule C of Form 1040. Choice A is wrong because Form 1120 is for C corporations, which require incorporation. Choice C is wrong because Form 1065 requires at least two owners. Choice D is wrong because S corporation status requires incorporation and a Form 2553 election.
4 She may represent the client only if she also holds an EA credential.
Question 6 Easy

Kevin is a limited partner in Blue River LP. The partnership is sued for $2 million. Kevin invested $50,000. What is Kevin's maximum liability exposure?

1 $0 — limited partners have no liability at all
2 $2,000,000 — the full amount of the lawsuit
3 $50,000 — the amount he invested ✓ Correct
Limited partners in an LP are liable only up to the amount they invested. Kevin's maximum exposure is $50,000. Choice A applies to general partners, not limited partners. Choice C overstates protections — limited partners do have exposure up to their investment. Choice D is incorrect because the limit is the investment amount, not a proportional share of the lawsuit.
4 His share of the $2 million based on ownership percentage
Question 7 Easy

Apex LLC has a single member, Jennifer. Jennifer has not filed any entity classification election with the IRS. How is Apex LLC treated for federal income tax purposes by default?

1 As a C corporation filing Form 1120
2 As a disregarded entity; Jennifer reports on Schedule C of her 1040 ✓ Correct
By default, a single-member LLC is treated as a disregarded entity for federal income tax, and the owner reports on Schedule C (or Schedule E for rental real estate). Choice A and B require affirmative elections (Form 8832 for C corp; Form 2553 for S corp). Choice D requires at least two members for default partnership treatment.
3 As a partnership filing Form 1065
4 As an S corporation filing Form 1120-S
Question 8 Easy

Green Valley LLP is formed by three licensed architects to share office space and clients. Each partner is protected from the malpractice of the others. What type of entity is this?

1 General partnership
2 Limited liability partnership ✓ Correct
A Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is specifically designed for professionals such as architects, attorneys, and accountants, giving each partner protection from the malpractice or negligence of the others. A general partnership offers no such protection. A limited partnership requires at least one general partner with full personal liability. An S corporation is a corporation, not a partnership.
3 Limited partnership
4 S corporation
Question 9 Easy

Carlos and Diego form a general partnership to run a landscaping business. Neither has incorporated. The partnership earns $80,000 in net profit but distributes only $30,000 to the partners. How are Carlos and Diego taxed on the partnership income?

1 No tax is owed until the profits are actually distributed
2 On their proportionate share of the full $80,000, regardless of distributions ✓ Correct
Partners pay tax on their distributive share of partnership income whether or not it is distributed (pass-through taxation). Choice A is incorrect because distributions do not determine taxability — the allocable share does. Choice C is wrong because a partnership is a pass-through entity and does not pay entity-level income tax. Choice D is the same misconception as A.
3 Only on the $30,000 actually distributed to them
4 The partnership pays tax on $80,000 at the corporate rate of 21%
Question 10 Easy

Franklin opens a bakery on September 15, 2024, and elects a calendar tax year. What constitutes Franklin's first tax year?

1 January 1, 2024 to December 31, 2024
2 January 1, 2025 to December 31, 2025
3 September 15, 2024 to December 31, 2024 ✓ Correct
When a business starts mid-year and uses a calendar year, the first tax year is a short tax year running from the date the business begins operations to December 31 of that year. Choice A incorrectly begins from January 1. Choice C is a 12-month period starting from the start date, not a calendar year. Choice D ignores the 2024 activity.
4 September 15, 2024 to September 14, 2025
3

EA Exam Part 3: Representation, Practices & Procedures

Free enrolled agent part 3 practice questions

Question 1 Easy

What is the minimum IRS work experience required for a former IRS employee to qualify for enrollment as an enrolled agent without taking the SEE?

1 10 years of combined federal government service.
2 2 years in a position interpreting and applying the Internal Revenue Code.
3 3 years in any IRS position.
4 5 years in a position involving interpreting and applying the Internal Revenue Code and Regulations. ✓ Correct
Circular 230 §10.4(b) requires at least 5 years of IRS experience in a position that involved interpreting and applying the Internal Revenue Code and Regulations. The experience must be specifically in interpreting the Code, not just any IRS job. Options A (2 years), C (3 years, any position), and D (10 years, any federal service) all state incorrect requirements.
Question 2 Easy

During a three-year EA renewal cycle, what is the minimum continuing education requirement?

1 60 hours total with at least 2 hours of ethics each year.
2 72 hours total with at least 16 hours per year including at least 2 hours of ethics annually. ✓ Correct
Circular 230 §10.6(e) requires EAs to complete at least 72 hours of qualifying CE per three-year renewal cycle, with a minimum of 16 hours each calendar year, including at least 2 hours of ethics annually. Option A states the wrong total (60). Option C states incorrect totals. Option D is incorrect because there is an annual minimum of 16 hours.
3 72 hours total with no annual minimum.
4 80 hours total with at least 10 hours of ethics per cycle.
Question 3 Easy

Patricia wants to apply for a PTIN. She prepares tax returns occasionally on weekends as a side job. Is she required to obtain a PTIN?

1 No, because she is only a part-time preparer.
2 No, because she only prepares returns on weekends.
3 Yes, because all paid tax preparers must have a PTIN regardless of whether they are full-time, part-time, or casual preparers. ✓ Correct
The IRS requires all paid tax preparers to obtain a PTIN regardless of whether they are full-time, part-time, or casual preparers. There is no minimum number of returns or hours threshold. Options A and B incorrectly suggest that part-time or weekend work exempts a preparer. Option D incorrectly imposes a 10-return threshold that does not exist.
4 Yes, but only if she prepares more than 10 returns per year.
Question 4 Easy

Thomas passed Part 3 of the EA Special Enrollment Examination. How long does he have to file Form 23 to apply for enrollment?

1 There is no time limit; he may apply at any time after passing.
2 Within 1 year of passing all three parts of the exam. ✓ Correct
Under Circular 230 §10.4, a candidate who passes the three-part EA exam must file Form 23, Application for Enrollment to Practice Before the Internal Revenue Service, within 1 year of passing the exam. Option A (6 months) and Option C (2 years) state incorrect timeframes. Option D is wrong because there is indeed a deadline.
3 Within 2 years of passing all three parts.
4 Within 6 months of passing all three parts.
Question 5 Easy

Sophia's brother, Marcus, owes back taxes and received an IRS collection notice. Sophia, who is not a tax professional, wants to contact the IRS on Marcus's behalf. Under Circular 230, is this permitted?

1 No, only licensed attorneys or enrolled agents may communicate with the IRS on a taxpayer's behalf.
2 Yes, an immediate family member such as a sibling may represent a taxpayer before the IRS. ✓ Correct
Circular 230 §10.7(c) specifically allows immediate family members—including a spouse, child, parent, brother, or sister—to represent a taxpayer before the IRS. Sophia qualifies as Marcus's sister. Option A is too restrictive. Options C and D impose conditions that do not exist under the regulation.
3 Yes, but only in writing and not in person.
4 Yes, but Sophia must first pass Part 1 of the EA exam.
Question 6 Easy

Which of the following activities is specifically included in the definition of 'practice before the IRS' under Circular 230?

1 Filing a state income tax return on behalf of a client.
2 Giving verbal advice to a friend on how to complete their own return.
3 Preparing a taxpayer's return but not signing it.
4 Providing a client with written tax advice on a Federal tax matter. ✓ Correct
Circular 230 §10.2 explicitly includes providing a client with written tax advice on one or more Federal tax matters as practice before the IRS. Option A is incorrect because merely preparing without signing does not constitute practice. Option C is incorrect because advice given to a friend informally is not the regulated professional relationship covered. Option D is wrong because Circular 230 only governs Federal, not state, tax matters.
Question 7 Easy

Which of the following persons is NOT eligible to represent a taxpayer before the IRS?

1 A fiduciary acting as the taxpayer.
2 A full-time employee representing their employer.
3 An enrolled retirement plan agent in their area of expertise.
4 An LLC representing its member in an audit. ✓ Correct
Under Circular 230, corporations, LLCs, partnerships, or any entity other than an individual are not eligible to practice before the IRS. Only individuals can represent taxpayers. An LLC cannot represent its member. Options A, C, and D all represent individuals or individuals acting in a specific capacity, all of which are permitted under Circular 230.
Question 8 Easy

David is an unenrolled tax preparer without the Annual Filing Season Program (AFSP) credential. His client, Natasha, received an IRS notice regarding a return David prepared and signed in 2024. What representation rights does David have?

1 David has virtually no representation rights for the return because it was signed after December 31, 2015. ✓ Correct
Under Circular 230, unenrolled preparers without AFSP have virtually no representation rights for tax returns signed after December 31, 2015. Option A is wrong because without AFSP, preparers cannot represent even for returns they prepared. Option C describes AFSP rights, not the rights of an unenrolled preparer without AFSP. Option D is incorrect because a notarized POA does not grant representation rights to unqualified practitioners.
2 David may represent Natasha before any IRS employee because he prepared the return.
3 David may represent Natasha before revenue agents only.
4 David may represent Natasha only if she gives him a notarized power of attorney.
Question 9 Easy

Maria, a licensed CPA in good standing, wants to represent her client before the IRS at an audit hearing. Which statement best describes her authority to do so?

1 She has full practice rights and may represent the client at the audit hearing. ✓ Correct
Under Circular 230 §10.3, CPAs in good standing have full practice rights before the IRS, including representing taxpayers at conferences, hearings, and meetings. Option A is wrong because CPAs do not need an EA credential. Option C is wrong because practice rights are not limited by tax type. Option D is wrong because while Form 2848 is normally required, the statement that she cannot communicate at all without it overstates the rule regarding who qualifies for full practice.
2 She may only represent the client if the matter involves income taxes.
3 She may represent the client only if she also holds an EA credential.
4 She must first obtain a Power of Attorney from the taxpayer before she can even communicate with the IRS.
Question 10 Easy

Which of the following CE providers is qualified to offer continuing education credit for enrolled agents?

1 Any accredited university that offers tax courses.
2 Any professional accounting firm that employs CPAs.
3 Any provider that offers online tax courses.
4 Only IRS-approved CE sponsors. ✓ Correct
Under Circular 230, all CE courses must be approved by the IRS and provided by IRS-approved CE sponsors. Simply being accredited by a university, employing CPAs, or offering online courses does not qualify a provider. Options A, C, and D all describe entities that may or may not be IRS-approved CE sponsors but do not guarantee that qualification.

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